One thing Trump tried to do after getting inaugurated was considering Mexican cartels terrorist organizations, and for that he was attacked by Sheinbaum for violating Mexico’s sovereignty. But, at least as far as I’ve read on the topic (whcih is not a lot to be fair), nobody actually explains why that’s the case. I mean at a glance you’d think the Mexican government would benefit from such an action, or at least I did. It’s pretty obvious to me I’m missing a piece of the puzzle, so does anyone here have it?
Edit: Thanks for the answers. Now it makes sense.
It’s a pretext for invasion. Just like invading Afganistan was to intervene in order to get Al-Queda. Or invading Iraq was about getting the Taliban… etc… etc… etc…
If America wants a war with someone for oil/economic pressure/etc… (really whatever reason they choose to make up) they simply say that there are terrorists there.
I’m calling it now and saying that in two weeks he declares the Quebec Sovereignty movement a terrorist organization for reasons…
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