This relates to the BBC article [https://www.bbc.co.uk/news/uk-politics-66596790] which states “the UK should pay $24tn (£18.8tn) for its slavery involvement in 14 countries”.

The UK abolished slavery in 1833. That’s 190 years ago. So nobody alive today has a slave, and nobody alive today was a slave.

Dividing £18tn by the number of UK taxpayers (31.6m) gives £569 each. Why do I, who have never owned a slave, have to give £569 to someone who similarly is not a slave?

When I’ve paid my £569 is that the end of the matter forever or will it just open the floodgates of other similar claims?

Isn’t this just a country that isn’t doing too well, looking at the UK doing reasonably well (cost of living crisis excluded of course), and saying “oh there’s this historical thing that affects nobody alive today but you still have to give us trillions of Sterling”?

Shouldn’t payment of reparations be limited to those who still benefit from the slave trade today, and paid to those who still suffer from it?

(Please don’t flame me. This is NSQ. I genuinely don’t know why this is something I should have to pay. I agree slavery is terrible and condemn it in all its forms, and we were right to abolish it.)

  • Melllvar@startrek.website
    link
    fedilink
    English
    arrow-up
    171
    arrow-down
    26
    ·
    2 years ago

    Nations that were the source of slaves remain on the whole impoverished and underdeveloped.

    Nations that were slavers still remain on the whole wealthy and highly developed.

    This is not a coincidence, and there is a reasonable case to be made for reparations on these grounds.

    • Gsus4@feddit.nl
      link
      fedilink
      arrow-up
      38
      arrow-down
      14
      ·
      edit-2
      2 years ago

      The UKs position today is arguably due more to leading the Industrial Revolution and that was the main factor in the decay of slavery, so you need to balance historic grievances with development i.e. “what have the Romans ever done for us?”

    • KevonLooney@lemm.ee
      link
      fedilink
      arrow-up
      24
      arrow-down
      12
      ·
      2 years ago

      Exactly. If anything, this amount of money is way too small.

      Occasionally we read a news story about someone who escaped a maniac that kept them locked up for years, forcing them to work and do depraved things for little or no pay. We rightfully think this is terrible and the criminal is inhuman.

      Slavery was millions of people in that situation for their entire lives. Whole economies were based on this genocide. We put Nazis to death for genocide. We put other leader on trial for similar crimes. Paying this tiny fine is the least the British (and other European governments) can do. The amount they really owe would bankrupt them.

      What amount of money would you exchange for measurably worse lives (education, health, jobs) for you, your family, and everyone who looks like you for generations?

        • SexyTimeSasquatch@lemmy.world
          link
          fedilink
          arrow-up
          10
          arrow-down
          1
          ·
          2 years ago

          Simply not correct at all. Look up the trans Saharan slave trade. It was absolutely enormous business before the Portuguese sailed down the West Coast of Africa.

          • 【J】【u】【s】【t】【Z】@lemmy.world
            link
            fedilink
            arrow-up
            5
            arrow-down
            5
            ·
            2 years ago

            Uhh okay. You’re talking about dozens or hundred people or so at a time, thousands of people per year, mostly prisoners of war, traded domestically, deported over a period of 1,700 years.

            And it still not half as many slaves as were deported across the Atlantic in only 350 years. Millions of slaves died on the voyage. They built vast trading routes and employed slavers as a business model, building customized ships to transport 600 slaves at a time.

            Apples and oranges.

            • SexyTimeSasquatch@lemmy.world
              link
              fedilink
              arrow-up
              6
              ·
              2 years ago

              You have a profound misunderstanding of the trans Saharan slave trade. Over centuries it resulted in millions of West African slaves being transported into and through the Arab world. This may not even have been the most significant source of slaves out of Africa during the pre-European colonial period. It is highly likely that more slaves came from Central and East Africa via Zanzibar. Millions upon millions of slaves being extracted from Africa before the Portuguese arrived. I’m not saying that what Europe did was even remotely reasonable. Just understand that we didn’t invent slavery, we didn’t start up slavery in Africa out of nowhere. It doesn’t excuse us. But we’re not uniquely evil either.

      • Melllvar@startrek.website
        link
        fedilink
        English
        arrow-up
        15
        arrow-down
        2
        ·
        2 years ago

        Between 1500 and 1865, more than 80% of enslaved Africans were shipped to the Americas by European slave traders.

      • abies_exarchia@lemm.ee
        link
        fedilink
        English
        arrow-up
        12
        arrow-down
        2
        ·
        2 years ago

        What do you think an enormous demand for slaves, as the colonial nations building plantations and mines in the americas, does to a the supply of slaves? Supply and demand, friend. It’s not as if all the enslaved people exported to the Americas were already in circulation when the europeans came knocking

      • DogMuffins@discuss.tchncs.de
        link
        fedilink
        English
        arrow-up
        7
        arrow-down
        2
        ·
        2 years ago

        What’s your point?

        “I’m going to take these slaves and exploit them because if I don’t someone else will”

      • Penguinblue@kbin.social
        link
        fedilink
        arrow-up
        2
        arrow-down
        2
        ·
        2 years ago

        I’m not sure if you are an ignorant apologist or outright racist but it feels important to comment on this given the number of uovotes this post is receiving. From an article from Slate I will link below:

        "But, as historian Marcus Rediker writes, the “ancient and widely accepted institution” of enslavement in Africa was exacerbated by the European presence. Yes, European slave traders entered “preexisting circuits of exchange” when they arrived in the 16th century. But European demand changed the shape of this market, strengthening enslavers and ensuring that more and more people would be carried away. “[European] slave-ship captains wanted to deal with ruling groups and strong leaders, people who could command labor resources and deliver the ‘goods,’ ” Rediker writes, and European money and technology further empowered those who were already dominant, encouraging them to enslave greater numbers. Both the social structures and infrastructure that enabled African systems of enslavement were strengthened by the transatlantic slave trade.
        Advertisement

        Bottom line: Why should this matter? This is a classic “two wrongs make a right” ethical proposition. Even if Africans (or Arabs, or Jews) colluded in the slave trade, should white Americans be entitled to do whatever they pleased with the people who were unlucky enough to fall victim?"

        https://slate.com/news-and-politics/2015/09/slavery-myths-seven-lies-half-truths-and-irrelevancies-people-trot-out-about-slavery-debunked.html

      • XiELEd@lemmy.world
        link
        fedilink
        arrow-up
        2
        arrow-down
        4
        ·
        2 years ago

        Nope, they deliberately made it so that the populations of African countries can easily be enslaved.