• PizzaMan@kbin.social
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    1 year ago

    It matters because if “true christian” population is correlated with self reported christian population, which it should be, then self reported christian population should also be inversely correlated with drug addicition.

    To break it down a little further:

    1. (n) “christians” = (n * x) true christians

    2. (n) “christians” = inverse (drug addicition)

    Therefore:

    1. “true christians” = inverse (drug addicition)

    Does that make sense?

    • 10A@kbin.social
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      1 year ago

      Yes, that does make sense. If the two are really uncorrelated, then it would appear some people are lying about their faith.