Rebecca Joynes is currently serving a six and a half year prison sentence

A teacher who was convicted for having sex with two boys, becoming pregnant by one, has been banned from the profession.

Maths teacher Rebecca Joynes, 31, was jailed for six and a half years in July last year after being found guilty of six counts of sexual activity with a child, after sleeping with one pupil before falling pregnant by a second while on police bail.

The Teaching Regulation Agency (TRA) convened earlier this month via a virtual hearing, which Joynes did not attend, to consider her professional conduct. A panel recommended she be banned from teaching.

        • Gladaed@feddit.org
          link
          fedilink
          English
          arrow-up
          1
          ·
          3 hours ago

          In a lot of jurisdictions rape is definited in that narrow way, but there is a crime with equal punishment that catches the rest of sexual crimes that you might call rape in america.

        • foggenbooty@lemmy.world
          link
          fedilink
          English
          arrow-up
          3
          arrow-down
          1
          ·
          4 hours ago

          I dunno. I almost think there should be a different term or word for it. I’m not saying it’s OK at all, I just think bundling so many sexual crimes under one name isn’t great.

          For example; I was a horny teen and probably would have been into a teacher like that. It would have been wrong and it likely would have messed up different aspects of my life. I’m not condoning it or trying to downplaying it, but I feel if I had been violently been penetrated against my will by a male teacher the trauma would be a whole different kind.

          So yeah, I don’t know if we should call it rape, but I recognize the boys were underage and taken advantage of, and the crime absolutely deserves to be punished. I’m also the person who get’s all worked up by modern loose usage WMD and many others, so I know I can be a handful.

          • DaTingGoBrrr@lemmy.world
            link
            fedilink
            English
            arrow-up
            1
            ·
            51 minutes ago

            Maybe that young girl wanted to have sex with an older man? Maybe there was no force involved at all?

            NOOOOOO!!! RAPE IS RAPE! SIMPLE AS THAT!

            I get that you want to separate sex by force from sex by free will but when it comes to kids there can never be consent and it defaults to rape. It should not be minimized just because a female teacher raped young boys.

        • BussyCat@lemmy.world
          link
          fedilink
          English
          arrow-up
          16
          arrow-down
          2
          ·
          17 hours ago

          They define rape as penetration

          Good news is she did seem to actually be punished with a sizable prison sentence (by uk standards)

      • WIZARD POPE💫@lemmy.world
        link
        fedilink
        English
        arrow-up
        73
        arrow-down
        49
        ·
        1 day ago

        Do I look like I give a fuck what the law says? They were underage, ergo could not give consent, ergo it was rape. Also power dynamics teacher pupil makes it even more rapey

        • fonix232@fedia.io
          link
          fedilink
          arrow-up
          77
          arrow-down
          7
          ·
          24 hours ago

          In the UK, the definition of rape requires penetration from the offending party by their genitalia. So unless the teacher has a monster clit she used to anally penetrate the boys, the definition of rape can’t apply. For that there’s the broader definition of sexual assault.

          Journalists, since their purpose is to serve the public with the truth, have to really carefully choose their words as using the wrong legal term can get them in hot water - libel lawsuits and such, not to mention accusations of trying to shape the public’s opinion, and so on.

          So yeah, you’ll rarely find directly said out statements in the news as most journos will try to get to as close to the definition as possible without exposing themselves to legal action. That’s why you’ll often see e.g. statements like “the purported killer” even if there’s clear evidence of the person being the murderer, simply because the case hasn’t been judged yet therefore the legal term murderer - which requires a conviction - cannot be applied, and using it before the trial even happens is a big no-no.

          Don’t get me wrong, I fully agree with you that if it was a man with two young girls, the article would be going on the offensive much quicker, and even here they should’ve used the term “sexually assaulted” instead of “had sex with”, but specifically the term rape cannot apply here.

          • Nurse_Robot@lemmy.world
            link
            fedilink
            English
            arrow-up
            35
            arrow-down
            6
            ·
            23 hours ago

            Thank you for the informative reply. As a layman in another country who isn’t worried about specific local laws, I’d like to add that she raped at least two children.

            • FuglyDuck@lemmy.world
              link
              fedilink
              English
              arrow-up
              14
              ·
              19 hours ago

              New York had (has?) a similar distinction. It came up in the E Jean Carrol saga; specifically Trump suing for defamation after her lawsuit, because it wasn’t- technically- rape.

              IIRC it was dismissed with the judge saying that it fits the modern lay definition of rape and that’s not defamation.

          • FuglyDuck@lemmy.world
            link
            fedilink
            English
            arrow-up
            13
            arrow-down
            2
            ·
            20 hours ago

            They didn’t call it “sexual assault” either, so I’m inclined to not accept that excuse.

          • EndlessNightmare@reddthat.com
            link
            fedilink
            English
            arrow-up
            7
            arrow-down
            1
            ·
            edit-2
            21 hours ago

            by their genitalia.

            So, like not using an object of some sort?

            Journalists, since their purpose is to serve the public with the truth, have to really carefully choose their words as using the wrong legal term

            Still seems like a more generic term such as “sexual assault” would be applicable here.

            • wewbull@feddit.uk
              link
              fedilink
              English
              arrow-up
              1
              ·
              12 hours ago

              It would, but that’s a very broad term. I expect they were trying to be specific, but only succeeded in being forgiving in the headline.

        • PoastRotato@lemmy.world
          link
          fedilink
          English
          arrow-up
          25
          arrow-down
          3
          ·
          1 day ago

          I agree, but there are libel laws to consider here. It serves no one to open yourself up to a lawsuit, especially one from which the rapist can only benefit.

        • tomiant@piefed.social
          link
          fedilink
          English
          arrow-up
          16
          arrow-down
          9
          ·
          22 hours ago

          Do I look like I give a fuck what the law says? They were underage, ergo could not give consent

          Underage is literally a legal definition, so clearly you do care. Calm down.