• PizzaMan@kbin.social
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    1 year ago

    The two rates are loosely related for sure, but it’s a Venn diagram.

    I’m not stating that they should be directly tied to one another, but surely it would be related enough to see an effect on drug rates, but we do not.

    I suppose it depends on how you define “Christian”, but the standard definition is equivalent to “one who has been saved”, so the multiplier is 1. But religious affiliation is a separate issue.

    Even with your definition of “Christian” the same math should apply.

    (0) = (0)

    (n) “christians” = (n * x) true christians

    I’m sure X would vary from country to country, but you simply cannot have many “true christians”, whatever they may be that fit your definition, without lots of other “superficial” christians.


    I would reply to the other two messages you sent to my lemmy.world account, but that instance is down at the moment due to the ddos attacks, so I’ll respond to those at another time.

    • 10A@kbin.social
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      1 year ago

      Maybe, but I’m not sure why that matters. The essence of our dispute here is over whether salvation works reliably for kicking a drug addiction.

      • PizzaMan@kbin.social
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        1 year ago

        It matters because if “true christian” population is correlated with self reported christian population, which it should be, then self reported christian population should also be inversely correlated with drug addicition.

        To break it down a little further:

        1. (n) “christians” = (n * x) true christians

        2. (n) “christians” = inverse (drug addicition)

        Therefore:

        1. “true christians” = inverse (drug addicition)

        Does that make sense?

        • 10A@kbin.social
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          1 year ago

          Yes, that does make sense. If the two are really uncorrelated, then it would appear some people are lying about their faith.