• Apeman42@lemmy.world
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      55 minutes ago

      Ehh… I like the spirit of this, but it’s not quite as immalleable as they say. You can have green great dragons if “great dragons” are a distinct thing from simply dragons. Like how in Game of Thrones, you’d say Ghost is a “white dire wolf”, not a “dire white wolf”.

      • mrgoosmoos@lemmy.ca
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        12 minutes ago

        in that case, “great dragon” is the noun, and is consistent with the proposed rule

    • Gork@sopuli.xyz
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      1 hour ago

      This is why we don’t have to conjugate our verbs, we make up for it with this very strict word order.

      It’s also probably why English as a Second Language is so difficult aside from the inconsistencies and exceptions.

      • pet the cat, walk the dog@lemmy.world
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        47 minutes ago

        Pronouns are the last bastion of inflection in English, and it’s fun to see English-speakers being perpetually confused about them. Namely about ‘I’/‘me’ and ‘who’/‘whom’. Since the word order and particles already handle the meaning of sentences, people don’t quite know why they need to modify the pronouns too. And don’t have the vocabulary for the rules, as grammatical cases are long forgotten.

  • glorkon@lemmy.world
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    4 hours ago

    Fun fact: Eddie Izzard once came to Berlin and did comedy gigs in German language. My favourite creation of his: Ausgefuckingzeichnet!

    • fakeman_pretendname@feddit.uk
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      8 hours ago

      I think there’s some imposters on that list, else I’m stuck trying to work put how I’d pronounce “danger” with three syllables.

      • TheTechnician27@lemmy.world
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        8 hours ago

        That’s counting a claimed New Zealand pronunciation of “ˈdæ̝ɪn.d͡ʒə”, which does split the first syllable in two. Can’t attest to that particular one, but Wiktionary will try to capture different ways of pronouncing words across major variants.


        Edit: Wait, that shouldn’t create a new syllable. Now I’ll need to investigate instead of just being confidently wrong.

    • raspberriesareyummy@lemmy.world
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      8 hours ago

      I’d argue putrescence is emphasized on the first syllable. But then I’m not a native speaker, so… But Putrescence sounds quite wrong to me.

        • raspberriesareyummy@lemmy.world
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          7 hours ago

          well - today I learned. I knew “putrescent”, I’d just been saying it with stress on the wrong syllable. Thanks!

          To be fair, from the linked pronunciation example, putrescent doesn’t sound so wrong at all, while quintessence sounds really very very wrong :D We do have Quintessenz in German which is stressed on the first syllable, so that’s probably why. Coming from two latin words, combined into one, I’d argue both languages got it wrong, because the first two syllables should both have equal stress.

  • Gork@sopuli.xyz
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    10 hours ago

    Rhi fuckin nocerous

    Ambi fuckin dexterous

    Po fuckin tay fuckin toes

  • e8CArkcAuLE@piefed.social
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    9 hours ago

    in Spanish you have stressed qué/cómo and normal que/como etc. they are pronounced the same as the difference is in grammar (please don’t ask me for details)

    in order to know whether is has the tilde (accent) on the vowel, you can use a similar rule:
    if you can put cojones (literally balls, but translates to what the fuck/how the fuck) after it, then it’s with a tilde.

    although it’s not a 100% reliable, more details here:

    https://spanish.stackexchange.com/questions/23322/fiabilidad-de-la-regla-de-poner-cojones-tras-que-qué-para-saber-si-lleva-tilde

    • AxExRx@lemmy.world
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      9 hours ago

      Its alsways bothered me a bit that its called a tilde both when its above a letter or on its own Ñ / ~

        • AxExRx@lemmy.world
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          7 hours ago

          I think i just found my answer on Wikipedia, in Spanish specifically, diaceitic marks as a group are referred to as tildes. And the name for the mark above ñ is a virgulila. Also, interestingly, ñ is considered a distinct letter from n, (as opposed to being an ‘n’ with an added accent) which i didnt realize…

          In english (and similarly in french) an accent refers to any of that group of ‘characters,’ which are commonly referred to as ‘glyphs’,differentiating them from characters, which would be whole letters that can be used independently) (which i think is what graficos is translating to) known as accent marks, aka diacritics.

          so á is an ‘accute accent mark’ (l’accent aigu in Fr) à is an grave accent, â is called a circumflex / accent circomflex

          and ä is an Umlaut/ trema.

          Like those last 2, the ñ is not referred to as ‘accent tilde’ just as ‘tilde’ (which to me seems fine for the others, but not the ~ because theres no other commonly used character by that name to need to disambiguation from)

          My problem was that when I took linguistics in college, I was also taking logic. To when the linguistics teacher referred to ‘ñ’ in english, he called ‘tilde n’ which was exactly the same phrase the logic professor would use to refer to ~N, aka ‘not N’.

          Making me constantly leap to ‘any letter but N,’ or ‘a theoretical negative/ converse of N’

          • bdonvr@thelemmy.club
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            4 hours ago

            ñ is considered a distinct letter from n, (as opposed to being an ‘n’ with an added accent) which i didnt realize

            Yep, it’s part of the alphabet. N (enn) then Ñ (ennyay). Also fun fact the alphabet is sometimes called the abecedario which is an amazing term IMO. It’s like a pun with the first four letters. ABCDario

            Spanish also uses Ü! But it’s not a letter on its own.

  • Triumph@fedia.io
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    8 hours ago

    I forget what the grammatical name for that kind of insertion is, but there is one. There’s a ton of rules for writing and speaking English that aren’t taught in regular school at all.